Critical Tax Case of Moore vs. US
Unrealized gains are one thing, unpaid income quite another...
The 16th Amendment to the US Constitution created the federal income tax,
says Jim Rickards at The Daily Reckoning.
It was ratified in 1913 and says, "The Congress shall have the power to lay and collect
taxes on incomes, from whatever
source derived, without apportionment among the several States, and without regard to any census or
enumeration."
This permitted the US to collect income taxes from individuals based on their individual
incomes. Prior to the 16th
Amendment, Congress relied mostly on tariffs and excise taxes.
Some income
taxes were passed by Congress, but
the Supreme Court struck them down on the view that direct taxes on wages, dividends, interest, rents,
etc. had to be apportioned
among the states based on population.
The 16th Amendment, in effect, overruled
the Supreme Court and allowed
the direct income taxes we have today. Still, that begs the question: What is income?
It has long been the
case that income must be realized before it can be taxed.
A paycheck or
dividend distribution is certainly
realized. But what about stock gains? If you buy a share of Nvidia at $10 and it goes to $500, do you
have to pay tax on that gain?
The answer is no, unless you sell it.
If you buy and hold, no gain has been
realized and no tax is due. Once
you sell it for $500, you have to pay tax on the $490 gain. So far, so good. It's really pretty
simple.
But
over the past 100 years, Congress, the Treasury and the IRS have created hundreds of exceptions to the
realization
requirement.
For example, if you own stock in a private company and you
transfer the shares to an offshore
company that you also own, there is no realization. You did not get any cash or other property on the
transfer.
Still, the IRS says there is a "deemed" realization and some tax is due. This is designed
to prevent citizens from later
selling the stock offshore outside the US taxing jurisdiction.
Other examples
include partnership taxation
where a withdrawing partner may be deemed to have income on the unrealized value of partnership assets
even though she received no
cash. It gets more complicated from there, but you get the idea.
Of course, the
Biden administration is keen
to tax unrealized gains. And just recently, 15 senators introduced wealth tax legislation intended to
tax unrealized
gains.
Now, a married couple has challenged the entire system of "deemed"
realization and says that there is
no income unless the asset is actually sold or exchanged for cash or other property.
They claim they're being
taxed on earnings that hadn't yet been distributed to them by a foreign corporation. They're arguing
that taxing these unreceived
earnings is unconstitutional.
Here's some background. I'm not going to get too
deeply into the weeds here,
but it helps to know a bit about the case.
In 2006, the couple invested $40,000
in a foreign corporation.
Between 2006 and 2017, the company reinvested all its earnings in the business. So the couple didn't
receive any dividend payments or
other income.
But the Tax Cuts and Jobs Act of 2017 provided a new federal tax
called the "mandatory
repatriation tax" that applied to investors in overseas corporations. This new tax treated investors'
share of a corporation's
undistributed earnings like they were actually distributed to the shareholders.
To the surprise of many, the
US Supreme Court has taken up the case and is hearing oral arguments.
The
attorney representing the taxpayers
argued, "'Income' was understood at the time of the 16th Amendment's adoption to refer to gains coming
into the taxpayer, like wages,
rents and dividends. Appreciation in the value of a home, a stock investment or other property is not
and never has been taxed as
income."
He went on to say, "That's not how the income tax has ever worked
going back to 1913. Again, the
reason the law doesn't work that way is the obvious one. Unrealized gains are not income. The only way
to make sense of the income tax
as it's existed for a century is to stick with the original meaning of the 16th Amendment. The Court
should reaffirm that there is no
income without realization."
Meanwhile, the attorney representing the
government argued that the 16th
Amendment doesn't actually require that income must be realized before it can be taxed.
She said the 16th
Amendment doesn't explicitly mention realization, and that "income" has a broader meaning than only
gains that have been realized. She
also argued that Congress has the legitimate authority to tax unrealized gains under its broad authority
to regulate
commerce.
If the Supreme Court rules for the government and finds that income
tax doesn't require realized
income, it could pave the way for a federal wealth tax that Democrats are pushing for.
But if the court rules
in favor of the taxpayers, this could blow a big hole in the US budget as the revenue currently
collected by the IRS on deemed sales
is lost.











Email
us